I was explaining the Monty Hall problem to someone thus:
You have three doors, and you pick one, giving you a $1/3$ chance of being right. The presenter opens one of the other two doors, knowing which door knows has a goat behind it. Then:
- you would not pick the opened door as it contains a goat, and not the expensive prize. So the probability that the opened door is a winner, is now reduced from $1/3$ to $0$.
- the remaining closed door must now have a $2/3$ chance of winning, an increase from the original $1/3$.
The person insisted that I was incorrect in stating that the probabilities shift in 1, 2 above. I do not understand if the opposer is correct or not. In some sense, I understand what they were saying: that the outcome does not change the probability. But at the same time, if we label the doors as "door chosen, door opened by presenter, and door remaining", then the probabilities will always be, respectively, $1/3$, $0$, $2/3$, right? The car will be behind the door that is untouched 2/3 times, no matter what.
Was I wrong to suggest that as the game is played, the probabilities of the two unchosen doors shift from $1/3$ and $1/3$ to $0$ and $2/3$?
I think your explanation is interesting. I think the person who is complaining about your explanation is confused about the effect of the reveal upon the probabilities. That the initial chance you chose correctly is $1/3$, and the open door -- post reveal -- has 0 likelihood of being the car, I think the confusion is where did the other $1/3$ go? You assert, correctly, that it belongs to the third door which was not initially selected or revealed. But you are arguing with someone who may think that that 1/3 is now evenly shared between your original door and the third door.
I think others have already explained the correct way to solve the game above. But, I will attempt to just point out a few things you might do to improve your explanation and convince your friend.
Finally, I suppose I would point out that when you ask
We're all saying your result is correct. But, maybe we should also point out that there are two components to what you are saying. There is a resulting probability $2/3$ chance of winning if you change, which you correctly state. Then there is an interpretation of why this is, which you explain by "shifting probabilities." Maybe trying out a different way to explain the result will help convince your friend.
EDIT: Let's be clear. Chosen the remaining door caries with it a $2/3$ chance of winning the car.
When you say that this person is adamant about the probabilities remaining 1/3, 1/3, 1/3 at the end of the game and that you are not sure who to believe - it seems like part of your question is not just how to convince this commenter, but also how to convince yourself.
Tree diagram Explanation
Rob gave a similar/equivalent/better explanation of this above, maybe mine is slightly different, but probably not significantly. You have 1/3, 1/3, 1/3 chance of selecting each of the doors represented at the top of the diagram. You obviously can't know which door you've chosen. 2/3 of the time you'll pick one of the two incorrect doors, 1/3 of the time you'll pick the correct door. Now, the winning strategy if you picked the incorrect door is to choose the remaining door -- this is easy to see. However it's not perfect, 1/3 of the time you'll pick the correct door to begin with and changing means you lose. But the way I would explain the game is simply that since $2/3$ of the time you will select the wrong door to begin with, the best move is to choose the remaining door. We'd expect to win 2/3 of the time.
Edit 2: Equivalent Statements
In a comment you stated
This is nonsense. If the probability that you stay and lose is $2/3$, then the probability that the car is behind the only remaining door with the chance of concealing the car must be $2/3$. Your statement and your friend's statement are identical. To the person playing the game, you can't know which door the car is behind, and the car can't switch as the game is played - so it might seem logical to think that since the car can't move there must always be a 1/3 chance that the car is behind any door. Before we start the game this is exactly the situation -- there is a 1/3 chance that the car is behind any of the doors. After the game when we know the location of the car, we could I suppose say that the probabilities are $\{1, 0, 0\}$ -- two doors do not have a car, one does.
Further you said that "the probability that the car is still behind one of the remaining two doors is 2/3" -- no, the probability that the car is still behind one of the remaining two doors is 1 (unless you have some reason to doubt the construct of the game to begin with). It can't be the case that the probability of the remaining door has a car is still 1/3 and that there is a 2/3 chance of winning if you change. Since (winning by changing) and (the car is behind the remaining door) are two ways to say the same thing.