$\pi = 2n\dfrac{\cos (x)}{\sin (x)+1}$
where $x = 90°\dfrac{n-2}{n}$
and $n \to \infty$
A high school student came up with the idea for this approximation of $\pi$, and I helped develop it. It is based on an inscribed polygon. Is this a circular definition? Does it require knowledge of the value of $\pi$ to work?

Seriously edited: As $x$ in your formula is in degrees, it depends on whether you can calculate $\sin$ and $\cos$ to something depending on $x$ without knowing $\pi$. In general I don't think that's possible, but as crivair points out in a comment both below the question and below this answer, we can prove that the expression can be calculated (nothing said about how easy though) for certain $n$'s.
And then a word about terminology: $\pi$ has a well known and short definition: The ratio between the circumference and diameter of a circle!
You should not go about inventing other definitions, that's like defining that your apple is blue, so this should not be considered a definition, but it is a limit that could theoretically (but as pointed out, in practice it might not be very good) to calculate $\pi$.
With the terminology in place: The only methods I know for calculating $\sin$ and $\cos$ uses infinite series (and assume that argument is in radians, and you need to know $\pi$ to convert between degrees and radians), if that's all you can find that will work in your case, you'll have two infinite sums, so getting a good value for $\pi$ from your limit won't just require choosing $n$ large enough, it also requires you to calculate those sums to a sufficiently high precision.