I have a random variable $X$ and a random vector $Y=(Y_1,Y_2,...,Y_n)$.
Let $X$ be stochastically independent of the elements of $Y$, i.e. $X$ is independent of $Y_1$, of $Y_2$,..., of $Y_n$. Can I then conclude that $X$ is also independent of vector $Y=(Y_1,Y_2,...,Y_n)$?
So I tried to show that the following relationship holds (in terms of density functions): $$f(X,Y_1,Y_2,...,Y_n) = f(X) \cdot f(Y_1,Y_2,...,Y_n)$$
given that $$f(X,Y_i) = f(X) \cdot f(Y_i), i=1,...,n.$$
Unfortunately, I have no idea of how to proceed.
Consider the following distribution for $X$ and $\{Y_1,Y_2\}$:
$$ f(y_1) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 < y_1 < 1 \\ 0 & \mbox{ otherwise} \end{array} \right. \\ f(y_2) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0 < y_2 < 1 \\ 0 & \mbox{ otherwise} \end{array} \right. \\ f(x| Y_1 = y_1, Y_2 = y_2) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc} \delta\left(x-(y_1-y_2) \right) & \mbox{if }y_1 > y_2 \\ \delta\left(x-(y_1-y_2+1) \right) & \mbox{otherwise }\end{array} \right. $$ The distribution of $X$ for any fixed value of $Y_1$ is simply that of a uniform random on $(0,1)$. Similarly, the distribution of $Y$ for any fixed value of $Y_1$ is simply that of a uniform random on $(0,1)$.
Yet $X$ is clearly not independent of the vector $\{Y_1,Y_2\}$. Indeed, for a given value of the vector, the value of $X$ is completely determined, and will be different for different values of the vector.