I ran into some problems while doing an exercise. The problem goes as follows:
Suppose we have two random independent variables $X$ and $Y$. Both are distributed normally with parameters $(0, \sigma^2)$. $\mathbb{P}(dx)=\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}} \exp^{-\frac{x}{2\sigma^2}}dx$. For $\gamma \in \mathbb{R}$, we set $U = X \cos\gamma - Y\sin\gamma$ and $V = X \sin\gamma + Y\cos\gamma$. Show that $U$ and $V$ are independent, calculate their distribution function.
What I've tried:
I know that to check the independence I need to use $$\mathbb{E}(\varphi (X) \psi (Y) )= \mathbb{E}(\varphi(X)) \cdot \mathbb{E}(\psi(Y)) $$ For that I need to calculate $\mathbb{P}_U$, $\mathbb{P}_V$ and $\mathbb{P}_{(U,V)}$. There are two ways to do that, either pushforward measure or density function. So I'm stuck at calculating $\mathbb{P}_U$ since for pushforward measure I can't express $X$ and $Y$ by using only $U$ or $V$. And for density function I have a problem with trigonometric functions since it changes the sign according to the quadrant and so does an inequality $\mathbb{P}(X \cos\gamma - Y\sin\gamma\leq t)$.
Thanks in advance
It is straightforward to compute the joint density of $(U,V)$ from that of $(X,Y)$. Jacobians and the like are involved in the standard undergraduate treatment of this topic (which is often not understood very well by said undergraduates). In this instance, the Jacobian approach is easier since the transformation is linear. Even more strongly for this particular problem, the answer can be written down with nary a mention of Jacobians, expectations, and the like. The transformation in question is a rotation of axes, and since the joint density $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ has circular symmetry about the origin, rotating the axes does not change the function: the joint density $f_{U,V}$ is the same function as $f_{X,Y}$, that is, $$f_{U,V}(u,v) = \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2}\exp\left(-\frac{u^2+v^2}{2\sigma^2}\right), -\infty < u, v < \infty$$ and the independence of $U$ and $V$ follows immediately: $$f_{U,V}(u,v) = \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp\left(-\frac{u^2}{2}\right) \cdot \frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\exp\left(-\frac{v^2}{2}\right) = f_X(u)f_Y(v)$$