I have $X_1,X_2, \cdots X_n$ that are iid from $N(\mu,\sigma)$. In my derivation of the expression
$E \big( \sum^n_{i=1} X_i^2 \big)$
I have written
$E \big( \sum^n_{i=1} X_i^2 \big) = \sum^n_{i=1} E \big( X_i^2 \big) = n E \big( X_i^2 \big) $
Is it true that first $=$ is because $X_1,X_2, \cdots X_n$ are independent and the second $=$ is because they are identical?
The expected value operator, $\mathbb{E}[.]$, is linear in the sense that
We have $$\mathbb{E}\left[\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i^2\right]=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\mathbb{E}[X_i^2]$$ $X_1,X_2,\cdots,X_n$have same distribution, thus $$\mathbb{E}\left[\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i^2\right]=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\mathbb{E}[X^2_i]=\sum_{i=1}^{n}(\sigma^2+\mu^2)=n(\sigma^2+\mu^2)$$