Let $X_1, X_2, . . .$ be independent zero mean random variables such that the variance of $X_j$ is $σ_j^2$, which is finite for every $j$. In addition, the (Pearson) correlation coefficient of $X_j$ and $X_k$ is the same $r$ for every $1 ≤ j < k$ integers. (a) Find the variance of $$\frac{X_1}{σ_1} + \frac{X_2}{σ_2} + ... + \frac{X_n}{σ_n}, (n ≥ 1)$$ (b) Prove that $r ≥ 0$.
Solution: $r=\frac{cov(X_j,X_k)}{σ_jσ_k}$, also $Var(\frac{X_1}{σ_1} + \frac{X_2}{σ_2} + ... + \frac{X_n}{σ_n})$ = $Var(\frac{X_1}{σ_1}) + Var(\frac{X_2}{σ_2}) + ... + Var(\frac{X_n}{σ_n})$, and $E(X_jX_k)=0$
And I dont know what to do the next?
Can the solution be: $$Var\left(\frac{X_1}{σ_1}+\frac{X_2}{σ_2}+...+\frac{X_n}{σ_n}\right)=Var\left(\frac{1}{σ_j}\sum_{j=1}^n(X_j)\right)=1$$