I've come across this result a lot but never had the concept explained in a little depth.
Basically its that
$E[X\times1_{X>c}]=\int_{c}^\infty x\ f_X(x)dx$
where $1_{X>c}$ is the indicator variable taking 1 with probability $P(X>c)$ , 0 otherwise.
I think my confusion stems from trying to show how the left hand side differs from $E[X\ |X>c \ ]$ particularly because I looked at this:
https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-expected-value-of-Y-given-that-Y-is-greater-than-C
but got confused a bit in Curt Clemens's 3 steps proof.
The conditional PDF $f_{X|X>c}(x)$ is the scaled unconditional PDF over smaller domain $$f_{X|X>c}(x)=\frac{f_{X}(x)}{P(X>c)}$$ because the conditional PDF should integrate to $1$ over $[c..\infty]$, and unconditional PDF should integrate to $1$ over $[-\infty..\infty]$.
The use of indicator variable is just a quick notation for the above.