If $f(x) = k^3x + k^3 – 2$ cuts the curve $g(x) = \frac{1}{2}ln(x)^2$ at exactly one point then What interval would 'k' belong to ?
I basically tried to equate both the equations together but got stuck. Any ideas ?
EDIT: Edited the question.
2026-04-07 19:00:29.1775588429
Inequalities and logarithm
66 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in INEQUALITY
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