does somebody have an idea how to prove this proposition:
$A$ arbitrary, $B\subset C$ and $P(B)>0$ => $P(A|C)\ge P(A|B)$. It should be simple but somehow I cannot get it.
Thanks in advance.
does somebody have an idea how to prove this proposition:
$A$ arbitrary, $B\subset C$ and $P(B)>0$ => $P(A|C)\ge P(A|B)$. It should be simple but somehow I cannot get it.
Thanks in advance.
This is not true. Let $B = A, C = \Omega$, then $$ \mathbb{P}(A|C) = \mathbb{P}(A|\Omega) = \mathbb{P}(A) \leq 1 = \mathbb{P}(A|A) = \mathbb{P}(A|B). $$