$0 < x, y, z < 1$
Assume
$\frac{y}{2} < z$
Can we conclude that:
$\vert\frac{x}{2} -\frac{y}{2}\vert < \vert x-z\vert$
$0 < x, y, z < 1$
Assume
$\frac{y}{2} < z$
Can we conclude that:
$\vert\frac{x}{2} -\frac{y}{2}\vert < \vert x-z\vert$
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No.
Let $X=Z=\frac{9}{10},Y=\frac{1}{10}$.
RHS of the inequality is zero, LHS is not, therefore this is wrong.