I'm a geometry student. Recently we were doing all kinds of crazy circle stuff, and it occurred to me that I don't know why $\pi r^2$ is the area of a circle. I mean, how do I really know that's true, aside from just taking my teachers + books at their word?
So I tried to derive the formula myself. My strategy was to fill a circle with little squares. But I couldn't figure out how to generate successively smaller squares in the right spots. So instead I decided to graph just one quadrant of the circle (since all four quadrants are identical, I can get the area of the easy +x, +y quadrant and multiply the result by 4 at the end) and put little rectangles along the curve of the circle. The more rectangles I put, the closer I get to the correct area. If you graph it out, my idea looks like this:
Okay, so to try this in practice I used a Python script (less tedious):
from math import sqrt, pi
# explain algo of finding top right quadrant area
# thing with graphics via a notebook
# Based on Pythagorean circle function (based on r = x**2 + y**2)
def circle_y(radius, x):
return sqrt(radius**2 - x**2)
def circleAreaApprox(radius, rectangles):
area_approx = 0
little_rectangles_width = 1 / rectangles * radius
for i in range(rectangles):
x = radius / rectangles * i
little_rectangle_height = circle_y(radius, x)
area_approx += little_rectangle_height * little_rectangles_width
return area_approx * 4
This works. The more rectangles I put, the wrongness of my estimate goes down and down:
for i in range(3):
rectangles = 6 * 10 ** i
delta = circleAreaApprox(1, rectangles) - pi # For a unit circle area: pi * 1 ** 2 == pi
print(delta)
Output
0.25372370203838557
0.030804314363409357
0.0032533219749364406
Even if you test with big numbers, it just gets closer and closer forever. Infinitely small rectangles circleAreaApprox(1, infinity) is presumably the true area. But I can't calculate that, because I'd have to loop forever, and that's too much time. How do I calculate the 'limit' of a for loop?
Ideally, in an intuitive way. I want to reduce the magic and really understand this, not 'solve' this by piling on more magic techniques (like the $\pi \times radius^2$ formula that made me curious in the first place).
Thanks!


In the limit as your mini squares shrink to no size, the area goes from being a sum of their areas to an integral. Consider the circle $x^2+y^2=r^2$. In the positive quadrant, one quarter of its area is$$\int_0^r\sqrt{r^2-x^2}dx=\int_0^{\pi/2}r^2\cos^2tdt$$(by substituting $x=r\sin t$). The mean values of $\cos^2t$ and $\sin^2t$ sum to $1=\cos^2t+\sin^2t$, and are equal as the functions differ only in a phase shift, so the average of each function is $\tfrac12$, and we're integrating over a half-period of $\cos^2t$, but the full period just reflects this. So the circle's area is $4\tfrac{\pi}{2}\tfrac{r^2}{2}=\pi r^2$.
This isn't how people originally worked it out, it's just what your method points us to. The simplest solution is to cut the circle into thinner and thinner sectors instead, and arrange these alternately into something resembling a rectangle, of height $r$. Its width is a half-circumference $\pi r$.
This argument can be formalised with calculus too; it boils down to the infinitesimal area element being $\rho d\rho d\theta$, with $\rho$ an arbitrary internal point's distance from the centre:$$\int_0^r\rho d\rho\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta=\tfrac12r^22\pi=\pi r^2.$$
But your approach is interesting from the perspective of more recent mathematics. A Monte Carlo method computes probabilities from integrals or vice versa. That the circle comprises a proportion $\tfrac{\pi}{4}$ of the smallest enclosing square's area means a randomly chosen point in that square has probability $\tfrac{\pi}{4}$ of being in the circle.