Please could you give me any idea to solve this question I do not know how to start to solve this. thanks in advance.
Let $A$ and $B$ be $n$-square complex matrices. If, for every $x \in \Bbb C^n$:
$(Ax, x) = (Bx, x)$,
Does it follow that $A = B$? What if $x ∈ \Bbb R^n$?
No. Set
$$A= \begin{bmatrix}0 & -1\\ 1 & 0\end{bmatrix}$$ and $B=0$, for example.