Say I have two Schwartz fucntions $f(x)$ and $g(x)$.
Does $\int f(x)g(x)dx \approx 0$ imply that $f(x)$ $g(x)$ have virtually non-overlapping support ?
Thank you for your time.
2026-03-28 00:30:24.1774657824
Inner product of two Schwartz fucntions.
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