I'm having some trouble proving the following theorem:
Let $($$X$,$\langle\cdot | \cdot\rangle$$)$ be an inner product space and $f: X \to \mathbb{R}$ a linear mapping. Prove that there exists a unique $\boldsymbol{\tilde{x}} \in X$ such that $f(\boldsymbol{x})=\langle\boldsymbol{x} | \boldsymbol{\tilde{x}}\rangle$ $\forall \boldsymbol{x} \in X$.
Some tips would be great!
For general inner product spaces, this statement is wrong. Consider for exmaple, the space $X = c_{00}$, that is $$ X = \{(x_n) \in \mathbf R^{\mathbf N} \mid \exists N \, \forall n \ge N: x_n = 0\} $$ the finitely supported sequences, with the inner product $$ \def\<#1|#2>{\left<\left.#1\right|#2\right>} \<x|y> := \sum_n x_n y_n $$ Define $f \colon X \to \mathbf R$ by $$ f(x) := \sum_n x_n $$ Then $f$ is obviously linear, but is not of the desired form: Let $y \in X$ be any point, we will show $f \ne \<\cdot|y>$. Choose $N$ such that $y_n = 0$ for $n \ge N$ and let $x = e_N$, that is $x_N = 1$ and $x_n = 0$ for $n \ge N$. Then $$ f(x) = 1 \ne 0 = \sum_n x_n y_n = \<x|y>. $$ It is true for complete inner product spaces, where it can be deduced from the projection theorem.