Let the integral in question be given by \begin{align} f_{n}(x) = \int_{1}^{x} \binom{t-1}{n} \, dt. \end{align} The integral can also be seen in the form \begin{align} f_{n}(x) = \frac{1}{n!} \, \int_{1}^{x} \frac{\Gamma(t) \, dt}{\Gamma(t-n)} = \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n!} \int_{1}^{1-x} (u)_{n} \, du. \end{align} The first few values are \begin{align} f_{0}(x) &= x-1 \\ f_{1}(x) &= \frac{(x-1)^{2}}{2!} \\ f_{2}(x) &= \frac{2}{4!} \, (2 x^{3} - 9 x^{2} + 12 x - 5). \end{align}
The question then becomes:
- What is the general series form of $f_{n}(x)$ ?
- Is there a connection to known special functions? In particular can $f_{n}(x)$ be related to the Bernoulli numbers of the second kind?
There is indeed a relation with the Bernoulli numbers of second kind. If I'm right, this is the result :
I'll present here mainly the "formal" steps to get to this result, I'll skip the details of convergence, derivation under integral and all. Start with : $$f_n(x)=\dfrac{1}{n!} \int_1^x \frac{\Gamma(t)}{\Gamma(t-n)} \text{d}t=\dfrac{1}{n!} \int_1^x (t-1)(t-2) \cdots (t-n) \text{d}t$$
Now introduce $g(t,y)=y^{t-1}$. We have $\dfrac{\partial^n g}{\partial y^n}(t,y)=(t-1)(t-2) \cdots (t-n)y^{t-n-1}$. Thus : $$\begin{array}{rcl} f_n(x,y) & = & \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!} \int_1^x (t-1)(t-2) \cdots (t-n)y^{t-n-1} \text{d}t\\ & = & \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!} \dfrac{\partial^n \;}{\partial y^n} \left( \int_1^x y^{t-1} \text{d}t\right) \\ & = & \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!} \dfrac{\partial^n \;}{\partial y^n} \left( \frac{y^{x-1}-1}{\log(y)}\right) \\ & = & \end{array}$$
We have $f_n(x)=f_n(x,1)$. Thus, we get (modulo some good argument for the Taylor expansion) : $$\boxed{\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} f_n(x)z^n = \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \displaystyle \left. \frac{1}{n!} \dfrac{\partial^n \;}{\partial y^n} \left( \frac{y^{x-1}-1}{\log(y)}\right) \right|_{y=1} z^n = \dfrac{(1+z)^{x-1}-1}{\log (1+z)}}$$
This demonstrates the theorem. The corollary is a direct consequences of the following series exapnsion : $$\displaystyle \dfrac{(1+z)^{x-1}-1}{z} = \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} {{x-1}\choose{n+1}}z^n \; \; \; \; \; \; \; \text{and} \; \; \; \; \; \; \; \displaystyle \frac{z}{\log(1+z)} = \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{b_n}{n!}z^n$$
$f_n(x)$ is then given by the Cauchy product : $$\boxed{f_n(x) = \sum_{k=0}^n {{x-1}\choose{k+1}} \dfrac{b_{n-k}}{(n-k)!}}$$
I'm not sure we can go any further than this.
By curiosity, how did you come across this problem ?