From the thread about the Gaussian integral,
Bryan Yocks set $~~t=xt$ for $ \int^1 _0 e^{-x^2 t^2} dt$ and got $ \frac{1}{x} \int^x _0 e^{-t^2}dt $
But I can’t figure out why $dt$ changed to $\frac{1}{x} dt$.
How can it be done like this?
Thank you in advance.