I want to solve a specific integral, by using substitution. As it is too specific to describe my situation and probably also not of general interest, let me give a toy example.
Let $\overline{\Omega} \subseteq \mathbb{R}^3$ and $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2$ be two domains of different dimension. Note that the intrinsic dimension of $\overline{\Omega}$ is two, although the ambient space is three dimensional. Furthermore, I know a bijective map $\varphi: \overline{\Omega} \rightarrow \Omega$. We may assume that all partial derivatives of $\varphi$ exist. I want to solve the following integral as follows:
$$\int_{x\in \Omega} f(x)dx = \int_{x\in \varphi(\overline{\Omega})} f(x)dx = \int_{y\in \overline{\Omega}} f(\varphi(y)) \ ? ? ? \ dy.$$
Where I have written the three question marks, there should be a dependence on $\varphi$. According to Wikipedia, if $\varphi$ would be a function from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$, I should take the absolute value of the determinant of the Jacobian. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integration_by_substitution)
But $\varphi'$ is not a square matrix. So something else needs to be done. I feel there should be a general theorem that one can look up if one knows integrals better.
Question 1: What should be at the three question marks?
Question 2: Can someone give me a citeable source?
many thanks Till
Discussing this with a colleague, we found a possible solution and a reason it cannot work the way that I described it.
What we can do is to replace $\Omega$ by $\Omega_n = \Omega \times {0} \subseteq \mathbb{R}^{3}$. In turn, we modify $\varphi_n(y) = (\varphi(y),0)$. At last $f_n(x,0) := f(x)$. Now $\varphi_n'$ is a square matrix.
It is easy to see that
$$ \int_{x\in \Omega}f(x)dx =\int_{y\in \Omega_n}f_n(y)dy. $$
Now, we can apply integration by substitution according to Wikipedia. We get $$ \int_{y\in \Omega_n}f_n(y)dy = \int_{z\in \overline{\Omega}}f_n(\varphi_n(z)) \ |det(\varphi_n'(z))| dz. $$
While this looks great at first it reveals a bigger problem: $det(\varphi_n'(z )) = 0$ This is because the last column is $0$.
So I am in need of a new approach.