I do not fully understand how to use Stokes theorem to compute the following integral could someone show me in this example.
$$\int_C (x+2y)dx+(2z+2x)dy+(z+y)dz\,$$ $C$ is intersection of sphere $x^2 +y^2 +z^2 =1$ and plane $y=z$
I do not fully understand how to use Stokes theorem to compute the following integral could someone show me in this example.
$$\int_C (x+2y)dx+(2z+2x)dy+(z+y)dz\,$$ $C$ is intersection of sphere $x^2 +y^2 +z^2 =1$ and plane $y=z$
On
Using differential 1-form
$$\omega = \left( {x + 2y} \right)dx + \left( {2z + 2x} \right)dy + \left( {z + y} \right)dz$$
we get for $z = y$
$$\omega = \left( {x + 2y} \right)dx + \left( {2x + 4y} \right)dy$$
For exterior derivative, that is applying operator $d$, it follows
$$d\omega = 2dy \wedge dx + 2dx \wedge dy$$
$$d\omega = - 2dx \wedge dy + 2dx \wedge dy = 0$$.
But know, from Stoke's theorem
$$\int\limits_{\partial S} \omega = \int\limits_S {d\omega } = 0$$
Stokes theorem says $\oint f(r(t))\cdot dr = \iint \nabla\times f(x,y,z) dS$
Where S is any surface bounded by that contour.
$\nabla\times f(x,y,z) = (-1,0,0)$
Why don't we use disk on the plane y=z as our surface. The normal to the plane is $(0,1,-1)$
and we can stop right there, as $\nabla\times f(x,y,z) \cdot n = 0$