What is the simplest example of a topos with an object $X$ which is internally ($X\to \mathbf{1}$ is epi) but not externally (no $\mathbf{1}\to X$) inhabited?
I think that for all categories $C$, in the topos $\text{Set}^C$ the externally and internally inhabited objects are the same, namely the ones with no empty sets in the image of $C_0$.
Then I thought, what if we take $\text{Set}^2$ but allow only maps $f_i:X_i\to Y_i$ where $f_0\cup f_1$ is a map, i.e. same elements in $X_0$ and $X_1$ must be mapped to same elements. This way, there is no map $\mathbf{1}=(1,1)\to(\{a\},\{b\})$ for $a\neq b$ but $(\{a\},\{b\})\to \mathbf{1}$ is epi. The question I couldn't answer, is this category even a topos?
Another idea was to take $\text{Set}^\omega$ and use some negation of countable AC so that there are sequences $X$ of non-empty $X_i$ with no choice function hence no map $\mathbf{1}\to X$, but I don't know how to formalize this.
Consider the integers considered as an additive group considered as a one-object category $\mathsf Z$. Now $\mathrm{Psh}(\mathsf Z)$ is a topos. Its objects are sets $X$ equipped with an arbitrary bijection $X \cong X$. Morphisms obviously preserves the bijection.
In this topos, the terminal object is the one-element set with the unique bijection. Consider this object $H$ which is a two-element set equipped with the bijection that swaps the two elements. There are no morphisms $1 \to H$ because it would produce a fixpoint of the bijection when there are none. However $H \to 1$ is epi, because the underlying map between sets are epi.
However, your thoughts about the $\mathsf{Set}^2$ thing probably doesn't work because it doesn't form a topos. Also it's evil to consider these unions or intersections of sets without a fixed universal set.