Let $L/K,\ E_i/K$ be field extensions$(i=1\dots r)$ and for all $i$,$\ L\cap E_i=K$.
Then $L\cap E=K$ ?(where $E=E_1\cdots E_r$)
Let $L/K,\ E_i/K$ be field extensions$(i=1\dots r)$ and for all $i$,$\ L\cap E_i=K$.
Then $L\cap E=K$ ?(where $E=E_1\cdots E_r$)
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I think there are easy counterexamples. Suppose that $K = \mathbb{Q}, L = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{6}), E_1 = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}), E_2 = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3})$. Then
$$E_i\cap L = K$$
for $i=1,2$. On the other hand $E_1\cdot E_2$ is an extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ generated by $\sqrt{2}$ and $\sqrt{3}$. Hence $\sqrt{6}\in E_1\cdot E_2$. Thus
$$E_1\cdot E_2 \cap L = L$$