Is there any intuition behind the implicit function theorem? Take $F(x,y)=0$ where $y=f(x)$. Then,
$$ \frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{F_x}{F_y} $$
I see that the derivative is equal to the reciprocal of the partial derivatives, what is the intuition behind this?
The geometric intuition is that the unit tangent vector, say $T$, to the surface $F=0$ is perpendicular to the gradient of $F$ at each point. This is because the directional derivative of $F$ in the tangential direction is $\nabla F \cdot T$, which would be nonzero if the tangent weren't perpendicular to the gradient, which intuitively implies that $F$ would vary along the surface. Once you know that, this relation follows by just taking the ratio of the $y$ component of the tangent vector and the $x$ component of the tangent vector.
Another mnemonic for this relation is to formally write $dF=F_x dx + F_y dy = 0$, which intuitively means that a change in one variable must be matched by a change in the other such that the change in $F$ will vanish (a slightly less rigorous way of saying $\nabla F \cdot T=0$). Then formally solve for $\frac{dy}{dx}$.