Here is the statement of the max-min inequality:
I understand the proof, but I'm struggling to visualize this inequality.
Here is my attempt at intuition. Let $f: \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$. The first slot of $f$ is the $z$-coordinate and the second is the $w$-coordinate. Then to find the value of $\sup_{z \in Z} \inf_{w \in W} f(z, w)$, we first walk along the $z$-axis. At each point along the $z$-axis, we stop and look out over the line that is parallel to the $w$-axis and intersects the point where we are currently standing. We record the elevation of the lowest valley created by $f$ along this line. We continue this process until we've walked along the entirety of the $z$-axis. At the end, we scour our notebook and return the largest number we recorded. In other words, $\sup_{z \in Z} \inf_{w \in W} f(z, w)$ is the highest, lowest valley found through this process.
$\inf_{w \in W} \sup_{z \in Z} f(z, w)$ can be found through an analogous process. This time we walk along the $w$-axis and look out over the lines parallel to the $z$-axis. We note the highest peak along each line parallel to the $z$-axis. At the end, we return the lowest of the numbers we recorded, i.e., the lowest, highest peak.
I am struggling to intuitively see why the highest, lowest valley will always be lower than the lowest, highest peak.
Is there a better interpretation of this inequality? Thanks!

You can translate each step of the proof into your analogy. For intuition's sake, I've assumed in some places that the infima/suprema are actually attained, but the argument holds even if the they are not attained.
If you stand at a fixed $z=z_0$ and look at the line parallel to the $w$-axis, by definition, the lowest valley $\inf_w f(z_0, w)$ will be less than or equal to any other point on this line $f(z_0, w_0)$ (for any $w_0$). So far, this leads to $$\inf_w f(z_0, w) \le f(z_0, w_0).$$
This is true for any $z_0$, so we can take a supremum on both sides to obtain $$\sup_z \inf_w f(z, w) \le \sup_z f(z, w_0).$$ The intuition is that the left-hand side is the "highest lowest valley" in your words. If we fix $z$ at the maximizer $z^*$, the lowest valley is still lower than any other point on that line where $z=z^*$, i.e. $\sup_z \inf_w f(z,w) = \inf_w f(z^*, w) \le f(z^*, w_0)$. But this last value is smaller than the highest peak when fixing $w=w_0$, i.e. $f(z^*, w_0) \le \sup_z f(z, w_0)$.
The above is true for any $w_0$, so we can take an infimum over the right-hand side to obtain $$\sup_z \inf_w f(z, w) \le \inf_w \sup_z f(z, w).$$ If you like, you can let $w^*$ be the minimizer on the right-hand side, and then step through the intuition above with $w^*$ instead of $w_0$.