I need some help to inverse this function: $$ y = a(e^{bx}-1) + cx + d $$ with $y(0)=d$ and $y(k)=0$ where $k$ is a constant.
I don't know how to proceed.
Thanks.
On
There is a chance that tis answer be out off topic; so forgive me if this is the case.
Any equation which write or can rewrite $$A+Bx+C\log(D+Ex)=0$$ has solution(s) in terms of Lambert function $W(t)$ (as Michael Galuza commented) which by definition corresponds to $$t=W(t)\,e^{W(t)}$$ In the case of $$ a(e^{bx}-1) + cx + d-y=0$$ the solution is given by $$x=\frac{a-d+y}{c}-\frac{1}{b}W(z)$$ where $$z=\frac{a b }{c}e^{\frac{b (a-d+y)}{c}}$$
But I must confess that I do not see where the conditions $y(0)=d$ and $y(k)=0$ could apply. The first one is always satisfied and the second one could only be used to fix one of the other parameters.
First you should check where the function is actually invertible. By making the derivative: $$ y'(x) = ab e^{bx} + c $$ you can see that the derivative is null in $x_0 = \log(-c/(ab))/b$ so that the function is invertible either in the interval $[x_0, +\infty)$ or in $(-\infty, x_0]$. Once you have decided which is the interval you need you can adopt any algorithm to find the root of a function (the simplest being bisection method) and use it to solve the equation $y(x) = y$.