I got the inverse as $y = 1/(1-x)$ but this seemed a bit too easy. Can anybody confirm if I'm correct?
2026-03-25 08:12:58.1774426378
Inverse of the function $ f(x) = 1 - 1/x$ for all real numbers except 0
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Yes, you are correct.$$\frac{1}{1-\left(1-\frac1x \right)}=x$$
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