Here, I am confused between option C) and D). I really cannot get where's the flaw in D) (Answer given is C).
PS. I don't know what working to show here. I request to not close this question for the same.
2026-04-01 17:04:32.1775063072
Inverse of this function.
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Take as example $X = \{1,2\}$ and $Y = \{0\}$. Then take $d = \{0\}$, yielding $x = X$. Take $a = \{ 1\} \subseteq x$ and compute $f^{-1}(f(a))$. You will see that it will not be $a$.