In class, we showed that
$$x^4 - 1 = (x-1)(x+1)(x^2 + 1)$$
over $\mathbb{F_3}$ is a factorization of irreducible polynomials, but it was also an exercise to show that
$$x^4 - 1 = (x-1)(x-2)(x^2 + 1)$$
over the same field. I don't get it. Are those two factorizations the same?
Yes, because $+2 \equiv -1 \mod 3$.