I am having problems to understand the the proof of following Lemma 9.14.2 in: https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/09HF
Lemma 9.14.2. Let $p$ be a prime number. Let $F$ be a field of characteristic p. Let $t\in F$ be an element which does not have a $p$-th root in $F$. Then the polynomial $x^p−t$ is irreducible over $F$.
Proof. To see this, suppose that we have a factorization $x^p−t=fg$. Taking derivatives we get $f′g+fg′=0$. Note that neither $f′=0$ nor $g′=0$ as the degrees of $f$ and $g$ are smaller than $p$. Moreover, $\deg(f′)<\deg(f)$ and $\deg(g′)<\deg(g)$.
We conclude that $f$ and $g$ have a factor in common. (WHY?)
Thus if $x^p−t$ is reducible, then it is of the form $x^p−t=cf^n$ for some irreducible $f$, $c\in F^*$, and $n>1$. (WHY?)
Since $p$ is a prime number this implies $n=p$ and $f$ linear, which would imply $x^p−t$ has a root in $F$. Contradiction. $\square$
I suppose that it is immediate but I don't see the reason to conclude that $f$ and $g$ have a factor in common and that $x^p-t=cf^n$
Suppose $x^p-t=fg$. Then we have $f'g+fg'=0$, hence $f'g=-fg'$, and none of the factors is equal to $0$.
Now let $q$ be the greatest common divisor of $f'$ and $f$, and let $p$ be the greatest common divisor of $g$ and $g'$. Then we can write $f'=qF'$, $f=qF$, with $\gcd(F,F')=1$; and similarly $g=pG$ and $g'=pG'$ with $\gcd(G,G')=1$. Substituting in, we have $$qF'pG = f'g = fg' = qFpG'.$$ Cancelling $q$ and $p$, we have $F'G=FG'$. Thus, $F\mid F'G$; since $\gcd(F,F')=1$, then $F\mid G$. But $F$ divides $f$, and $G$ divides $g$. Moreover, because $\deg(f')\lt \deg(f)$, it follows that we $\deg(q)\leq \deg(f')\lt\deg(f)$, so $\deg(F)\geq 1$. Thus, $F$ is a nontrivial common factor of $f$ and $g$.
Why does this mean that a factorization must be a power of a single irreducible? Suppose $f$ is an irreducible factor of $x^p-t$. Then we can write $x^p-t = fg$ for some $g$; but then $f$ and $g$ have a common factor as above, and that factor must be $f$ since $f$ is irreducible. Continuing this way we can write $x^p-t = f^rg'$ for some $g'$ that does not have any factors of $f$. But then if $g'$ is not a unit, then again we have that $f^r$ and $g'$ must have a common factor by the previous observation... which is impossible since the only common factors would be powers of $f$. Thus, $g$ is a unit and in fact we have $x^p-t = cf^r$ for some $r$.