Here's my problem:
Is $a^2 + b^2 = c^2 + d^2 = e^2 + f^2$ possible where $a$, $b$, $c$, $d$, $e$, and $f$ are all positive integers, and $(a, b)$, $(c, d)$, $(e, f)$ are all distinct pairs ($(3, 4)$ and $(4, 3)$ are same)? I'm not sure if this is a theorem or not, so please let me know the name of the theorem if it is.
Edit: Will this still work if a+e=d and b+c=f?
Thanks for the help!
Answering the version with the two linear equations added to the system.
Consider the three complex numbers $$ z_1=b+ai,\quad z_2=c-di,\quad z_3=f-ei. $$ The quadratic equations imply that $$|z_1|=|z_2|=|z_3|.$$ The linear equations imply that $$z_1+z_2=z_3.$$ So $z_1+z_2=z_3$ has the same length as both $z_1$ and $z_2$. By the law of cosines this implies that the angle between $z_1$ and $z_2$ must be $2\pi/3$.
Let's introduce the ratio $$ \omega=\frac{z_1}{z_2}.\qquad(*) $$ We have seen that $|\omega|=1$ and that the argument of $\omega$ is $\pm2\pi/3$. Therefore $$ \omega=\frac{-1\pm i\sqrt3}2. $$ But, by $(*)$, $\omega$ should also be an element of the field $\Bbb{Q}(i)$. This is a contradiction.