Let $D \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2$ be the closed unit disk. Let $f:D \to D$ be a smooth bijective map with everywhere invertible differential.
Is $f$ a diffeomorphism of the closed disk?
Here is what I know: The assumptions imply* that $f(D^o) \subseteq D^o$. Since $f$ is surjective, we also have $f(\partial D) \supseteq \partial D$.
The problem is that I am not sure that $f(\partial D) \subseteq \partial D$. If this was the case, then $f$ would be a diffeomorphism.
Note that I assume that $f$ is smooth on entire closed disk (with the boundary).
*See here.
Here is an alternative to using invariance of domain.
We know that $f : D \to D$ must be a homeomorphism. Assume that $f(x) \in \partial D$ for some $x \in D^0$. Then $D \setminus \{x\}$ is homeomorphic to $D \setminus \{f(x)\}$. But $D \setminus \{f(x)\}$ is contractible and $D \setminus \{x\}$ is homotopy equivalent to the circle $S^1$. This is impossible.
Thus $f(D^0) \subset D^0$ and similarly $f^{-1}(D^0) \subset D^0$. Hence $f(D^0) = D^0$.