I am wondering, if the following is true without any other assumptions and if so, how to prove it:
Let $(M_t)_{t \geq 0}$ be a continuous local martingale on a filtered probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, (\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}, P)$ that satisfies the usual conditions.
If $(M_t)_{t\geq 0}$is square integrable (that is, for all $t\geq 0$ we have $E[M_t^2] < \infty$) then $(M_t)_{t\geq 0}$ is a true martingale.
Thanks for any advice.
The BDG inequalities give the result if instead of $E[X^2_t]<+\infty$ you have $E[X^{*2}_t]<+\infty$ ( the star stands for the sup) indeed the result hold by the lemma 3 below.
If we look at George Lowther's blog, we have the following characterisation that is of interest :
Lemma 3 : A local martingale $X$ is a square integrable martingale if and only if ${{\mathbb E}[X_0^2]<\infty}$ and $[X]$ is integrable, in which case ${X^2-[X]}$ is a martingale.(note : the last claim is a bonus)
So if we have a local martingale square integrable at every time $t$, and which quadratic variation isn't integrable we have a counterexample. This I believe probably exists even if I don't have a concrete construction to exhibit right now.
Here is a counterexample, this is a continuous local martingale it is such that $E[X^2_t]$ is bounded and tends to 0as $t\to \infty$ (look at comet after equation (4)) yet it is not martingale as proven in the post.
NB: This by the way of lemma 3 proves that $E[[X]_t]=\infty$ for some $t$ which is not trivial.
Regards