Is almost sure convergence of the entries implies almost sure convergence of the vector?

Question

Say I have two sequences $\boldsymbol{X}_n\in\mathbb{R}^6$ and $\boldsymbol{Y}_n\in\mathbb{R}^8$, such that $$\boldsymbol{X}_n\rightarrow_{\text{almost surely}}\boldsymbol{X},$$ and $$\boldsymbol{Y}_n\rightarrow_{\text{almost surely}}\boldsymbol{Y}.$$ Does this imply that

$$(\boldsymbol{X}_n,\boldsymbol{Y}_n)\rightarrow_{\text{almost surely}}(\boldsymbol{X},\boldsymbol{Y})$$ ?