Is the following statement correct in the category of sets?
Let $X$ be any set. Then there exists a filtered small category $I$ and a functor $F:I\to \mathrm{Set}$ such that for all $i\in I$ the set $F(i)$ is finite, and such that $$ X \; = \; \mathrm{colim}_{i\in I} F(i) . $$
Are there references on results of this type in the literature?
The answer is yes: every set is the union of its finite subsets.
So take $I = P_{\text{finite}}(X)$ with as morphisms the inclusion maps, and $F : I \to \text{Set}$ the inclusion.