This is a simple proof of Real Analysis in a single variable.
Given $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ $\forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}$
Show that if $f $ is continuos at $x=0$ then $ f$ is continuos at$ x=a$.
Hint or suggestion: make a change of variable $u=x-a$.
Please verify my proof:
Let $lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$ So $lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x+y)=f(0)f(y)$
Let $\epsilon>0$ exists such that $\delta>0$
We have:
$0<|x-0|< \delta$ $\implies$
$$|f(x+y)-f(x)f(y)|<\epsilon$$
(by definition of continuity)
So, let $u=x-a \implies u\rightarrow x-a$
Such that $x\rightarrow 0$ and $u-a \rightarrow 0$ $\implies u\rightarrow a$
Then, we get the limit:
$$lim_{u \rightarrow a} f(u-a+y)=f(u-a)f(y)$$
Therefore $\epsilon>0$ exists when $\delta>0$ such that $0<|u-a|<\delta$ it implies $$|f(u-a+y)-f(u-a)f(y)|<\epsilon$$
$\therefore f $ is continuos at $x=0 \implies$ $f$ is continuous at $x=a_{\blacksquare}$ Is it correct?.
Suggestions will be welcome. Thanks in advance.
@Γιάννης Παπαβασιλείου already gave a nice answer, I add another interesting fact. It is known that the exponential $f(x) = a^x$ is the unique function with $f(1) = a$ that satisfies $f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)$. Since it is continuous you have your statement.