I have a slight confusion with the notation $f(x)(y)$.
Does $f(x)(y)$ mean the same as $f(x,y)$?
Or does it mean something else?
Particularly I saw the notation $f(x)(y)$ in the following definition for Eulerian derivative of a functional $J: \Omega \rightarrow J(\Omega)$ to the direction of the vector field $V$:
$$dJ(\Omega;V) = \lim_{t\rightarrow 0}\frac{J(\Omega_t)-J(\Omega)}{t}$$
where $\Omega_t = T_t(V)(\Omega).$
Let $X$, $Y$ and $Z$ be sets. Suppose that you are given a map $f \colon X \to Z^Y$, where $Z^Y$ is the set of all maps $Y \to Z$. Then, for any $x \in X$, it is legitimate to denote by $f(x)$ the map that sends $y \in Y$ to $f(x)(y) \in Z$.
This is, in particular, the case of derivatives, where at each differentiability point (x) of a function $J$ you want to attach a (linear) map $dJ(x)$ that acts again on points. Anyway, the derivative of $J$ at $x$ along $y$ is often denoted by $dJ(x;y)$, especially on old textbooks.