Consider the function $f(x,y) = \exp(x) + \exp(y)$, $(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2$.
I want to know if it is true that,$\exp(x) + \exp(y)$ super-coercive, that is,
$(\exp(x) + \exp(y))/\|(x,y)\|_2 \to \infty$ as $\|(x,y)\|_2 \to \infty $
This seems intuitively true, but I am having some trouble.
Let $x = r\cos(t), y = r\sin(t)$.
Then the left hand side becomes, $$(\exp(x) + \exp(y))/\|(x,y)\|_2 = (\exp(r\cos(t)) + \exp(r\sin(t)))/r$$
Using the approximation, $\exp(x) \geq 1+ x$, we have, $$(\exp(x) + \exp(y))/\|(x,y)\|_2 \geq (1 + r\cos(t) + 1 + r\sin(t))/r$$
Which does not go to $\infty$ as $r \to \infty$.
But the gap between $\exp(x)$ and $1+x$ is huge.
How can I prove my original statement?
As $x \to -\infty$ and $y \to -\infty$ is is clear that the limit is $0$, not $\infty$.
If you are considering only positive values of $x$ and $y$ then the inequalities $e^{x} > \frac {x^{2}} 2$ and $e^{y} > \frac {y^{2}} 2$ make the result quite evident.