The answer on Khan Academy states that the integral evaluates to $1 \over 4$$\sin^4(x)+C$
However, I performed a u-substitution that I cannot find a mistake in (maybe I am blind).
Here's the working:
$I=\int \sin^3(x)\cos(x)dx$
let $\ u=\cos(x)$
$du=-\sin(x)dx$
$dx= \frac{-1}{\sin(x)}\ du$
$I=\int \sin^3(x)u\cdot-\frac{1}{\sin(x)}dx$
$I=\int -\sin^2(x)\cdot u\ du$
$I=\int -(1-\cos^2(x))\ u\ du$
$I=\int (\cos^2(x)-1)\cdot u\ du$
$I=\int u(u^2-1)\ du$
$I=\int u^3-u\ du$
$I=\frac{u^4}{4}-\frac{u^2}{2}$
$I=\frac{\cos^4(x)}{4}-\frac{\cos^2(x)}{2}+C$
$$\frac{\sin^4 x}4=\frac{(1-\cos^2x)^2}4=\frac{\cos^4x-2\cos^2x+1}4 =\frac{\cos^4x}4-\frac{\cos^2x}2+\frac14$$ so both these answers differ by a constant, and so if one is a valid indefinite integral, then so is the other.