I understand that the area of a circle (based on diameter) with respect to the area of a square (same side length as circle diameter) is approximately 0.7854 the area of the square. My question:
Is $$\frac{\text{area of circle with diameter $d$}}{\text{area of square with side $d$}}$$ irrational?
It's $\frac\pi4$, and since $\pi$ is transcendental – much, much stronger than irrational – so is $\frac\pi4$.