Imagine we have 2 sets. Each has a probability of a certain event. It is 0.01% for the set one and 0.02% for the set two.
Is it correct to compare these probabilities by their ratio? That is saying, that the second set has twice the probability of the event compared to the first one.
My problem with this is that increase in probability from 0.01% to 0.02% is so negligible, so that saying it is twice more probable looks sooo misleading to me.
How does answer to this question change if we know both sets to be representing the same amount of trials?
How does answer to this question change if we do not know for certain whether sets are of equal amount of trials?
I have found this question, but I believe it does not apply here.
You can compare probabilities by ratio like this, but you have to know how to interpret it.
I think a really good "paradox" that precisely captures intuition difference is the "potato paradox".
It says:
The idea here is that only $1$ pound out of $100$ was "potato" matter on the first day, but since the second day, it was $2\%$, and you can't magically have more or less "potato" matter, we can conclude that now half the water dried up, so now only $1$ pound out of $50$ is "potato" matter and hence it's $98\%$ water.
The idea here is that it's misleading: you don't magically have more potato matter as it might initially seem. You just have less water. So in an almost exactly similar sense, if you have the same amount of positive outcomes in a smaller sample space, your probability would be higher.
So I suppose here's how I think about it: either the sample space is different, the number of outcomes is different, or both, when comparing probabilities.
If we know two different probabilities have the same sample space, like if we say disease rates in group $A$ are $0.01\%$ and disease rates in group $B$ are $0.02\%$ and group $A$ and $B$ are the same size, then we know twice the amount of people in group $B$ got sick compared to group $A$. There are two times as many sick people.
If we know two different probabilities have the same number of outcomes but not the same sample space, like with the previous example, if we know the same number of people are sick in group $A$ and group $B$ and the probability of the disease in group $B$ is twice as high, then we know there's half the number of people in group $B$. Group $B$ is half the size of group $A$.
If we know neither sample space size nor outcomes, then, like you said, we're comparing ratios of ratios. So it really doesn't tell you either the difference in sample space size or number of positive outcomes.
I think you'd find this video on Bayesian statistics, and similar videos/problems very interesting.