Is it logical to say that $ 2\over 0$ $\ne$ $ 2\over 0$?

Question

As I was doing a math exercice, I came across a question which I decided to prove by contrapositive. That required me to show that $ f(4-x)$ $\ne$ $f(x)$ - but in both cases the result was $ 2\over 0$. So my question is; is it correct to say that $ f(4-x)$ $\ne$ $f(x)$ since $ 2\over 0$ is undefined?

Answer 1

I am assuming the mathematics you are studying keeps division by zero undefined. So then a statement like $2\over0$ $\neq$ $2\over0$ has no meaning as some of symbols involved have no meaning (depending on the mathematics you are dealing with). More context about the problem might be helpful.