In probability theory, I have seen two forms of an integral. Let $\mu$ be a Borel measure and $f$ is a function.
What is the difference between the following two forms: \begin{eqnarray} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) \mu(dx) \end{eqnarray} and \begin{eqnarray} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) d\mu(x) \end{eqnarray}
Please give some references for your answer.
Since the other answers didn't provide a reference and you asked for one in the comments, a reference can be found in Schillings Measures Integrals and Martingales (ISBN 9780521615259), Page 77. There they state: In case we need to exhibit the integration variable, we write $$ \int u d \mu=\int u(x) \mu(d x)=\int u(x) d \mu(x) $$
Note that for a distribution of a random variable: $$\mathbb P_X(A)= \mathbb P ( X \in A)$$ Schilling also writes $$\int u(X(\omega)) \mathbb P(d \omega)= \int u(s) \mathbb P (X \in ds)$$ for suitable function $u$.