Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?
I was trying to prove that there are infinitely many primes of the form $4n+1$, but to prove it, I need to prove the above statement true.
2026-03-26 08:13:52.1774512832
Is it necessary for a number of the form $4k^2+1$ to have at least one prime factor of the form $4n+1$?
86 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in NUMBER-THEORY
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