Assume that the: $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{a_n}{b_n}$$ and $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{b_n}{c_n}$$ are convergent and irrational, then if $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{a_n}{c_n}$$ is convergent should it also be irrational then for the integer $a_n$, $b_n$ and $c_n$?
I assume this is false, but can not find any counterexample.
Let $a_n = n+1, b_n = (-1)^n n(n+1), c_n = n(n+1)^2$
Then $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = -\ln 2$$ $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{b_n}{c_n} = \ln 2 -1$$ $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{c_n} = 1$$