I came across this problem:
Prove that $\mathbb(Q, +)$ is not isomorphic to $\mathbb(R, +)$ without using the argument of uncountability.
The alternative argument given was the following:
$\mathbb(Q, +)$ has a property allowing it to act as pseudo-cyclic which $\mathbb(R, +)$ does not:
$Φ(\frac{m}{n}) = (\frac{m}{n})Φ(1)$
(A) Is this argument valid?
(B) I understand that if the arrival set were $Q$ under addition , it would have made more sense, but could one argue that $K$ is isomorphic to $H$ if and only if $H$ is isomorphic to $K$?
(C) If we are to find an argument relating to surjectivity, would that not be referring to the uncountability of $\mathbb R$?
When working with $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{R}$ as abelian groups, saying that $\Phi(\tfrac{m}{n}) = \tfrac{m}{n}\Phi(1)$ isn't technically well-defined since $\tfrac{m}{n}$ is not an integer (although, this will make sense when you view them as vector spaces over $\mathbb{Q}$). You are correct about the fact that $\mathbb{Q}$ has a certain notion of pseudo-cyclicity that $\mathbb{R}$ does not share with it.
Prove that $\mathbb{Q}$ is pseudo-cyclic and $\mathbb{R}$ is not. Conclude that they are non-isomorphic.