I stumbled over the question
Is the closure of a set of first category also of first category?
and immediately thought of $\overline{\mathbb Q} = \mathbb R$ as a counterexample. Clearly, $\mathbb Q$ is of first category. But is $\mathbb R$? I highly assume it is not, but it doesn't seem to be as obvious as I thought. Any simple proofs?
$\mathbb{R}$ is a complete metric space with respect to the usual topology,so from Baire's theorem is of second category in itself.
A set of second category is a set which is not of first category,i.e it cannot be written as a countable union of nowhere dense sets.
So your counterexample is valid.
Also remember that Baire's theorem has this corollary: