The Minkowski spacetime $\mathbb{R}^{1,3}$ is said to be a manifold (isomorphic to $SO^{1,3}$. But according to the definition of a manifold it should be locally euclidean. However, this seems to be wrong, in general relativity your pseudo riemmanian manifold is locally minkowskian, if the above statement was true, it would also be possible to make it locally euclidean.
I think I am missing a major point in connecting, "A manifold is a locally Euclidean topological space" and "Minkowski space is a manifold".
The definition of a manifold as such does not take metric structures into account. I just requires local diffeomorphism (homeomorphic in case of topological manifolds) with some $\mathbb{R}^n$, which sometimes (sloppily) is rephrased as locally diffeomorphic to a Euclidean space. This is still correct, cause a diffeomorphism does not have to preserve scalar products. Minkowski space is a manifold with additional structure (the Lorentz metric).