Is my following proof of $\eta(0)=\frac{1}{2}$ correct?
$$\eta(0)=\lim_{s\to 0^{+}}\eta(s)=\lim_{s\to 0^{+}}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$$ $$=\lim_{s\to 0^{+}}\left(\lim_{x\to 1^{-}}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-x)^{n-1}}{n^s}\right)$$ $$\{\text{change the order of the limits}\}$$ $$=\lim_{x\to 1^{-}}\left(\lim_{s\to 0^{+}}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-x)^{n-1}}{n^s}\right)$$ $$=\lim_{x\to 1^{-}}\left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty (-x)^{n-1}\right)$$ $$=\lim_{x\to 1^{-}}\left(\frac{1}{1+x}\right)$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}$$
I let $s\to 0^{+}$ since $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n^s}$ is defined for $\Re(s)>0$ and I let $x\to 1^{-}$ since $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty x^n$ is defined for $|x|<1$.
Thank you,



This approach does point to a valid result, which we discussed over at Mathoverflow: Let $a_n$ be a sequence of complex numbers such that $$F(x):= \sum a_n x^n \ \text{and}\ Z(s) = \sum a_n n^{-s}$$ converge for $0 \leq x < 1$ and $s>0$. What can we say about the limits $\lim_{x \to 1^{-}} F(x)$ and $\lim_{s \to 0^+} Z(s)$?
The answers are
(1) It is possible that $\lim_{s \to 0^+} Z(s)$ exists but $\lim_{x \to 1^{-}} F(x)$ doesn't. An example is $a_n = n^{-1} e^{i c\log n}$ for nonzero real $c$. See Gerald Edgar's answer.
(2) If $\lim_{x \to 1^{-}} F(x)$ exists, then so does $\lim_{s \to 0^+} Z(s)$, and they are equal. See Brad Rogers' answer.
The second point is the one that justifies your computation. As you can see, the proof is highly nontrivial.