Suppose that we have rational numbers $q_1$, $q_2$ such that $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{q_1}e^{-\frac{t^2}{2}} \,\mathrm{d}t=q_2.$$ Does this imply that $q_1=0$ and $q_2=\dfrac{1}{2}$?
2026-02-23 05:42:20.1771825340
Is $\Phi(q)$ rational for some $q \in \mathbb{Q}^*$, where $\Phi$ is the standard normal cumulative distribution function?
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