Let $(X, \mathcal{T}_X)$ and $(Y, \mathcal{T}_Y)$ be topological spaces. $X$ is locally connected at $x \in X$, if for each $U \in \mathcal{T}_X(x)$ there exists $U' \in \mathcal{T}_X(x)$ such that $U'$ is connected and $U' \subset U$. Here $\mathcal{T}_X (x)$ denotes the open subsets of $X$ which contain $x$. Let $X$ be locally connected at $x$ and $f : X \to Y$ be a quotient map.
Is $Y$ locally connected at $f(x)$?
Notes
- I can prove that the result holds when $f$ is a continuous open map. This includes projection from a product space to its factor.
I think K. Jiang's answer gives an example which does more than it needs to in order to answer the OP's question ($X^*$ I think has no locally connected points at all!) .
Let
$$ X = [0,0] \cup \bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} [\frac{1}{2n},\frac{1}{2n-1}] \subseteq [0,1]. $$
Then clearly $1 \in X$ is a point where $X$ is locally connected: if $U\in \mathcal T_X(1)$, then there is an $\epsilon>0$ such that $(1-\epsilon,1+\epsilon) \cap X \subseteq U$, and thus taking $\epsilon_1 = \min \{\epsilon,1/4 \}$ we see that $V = (1-\epsilon_1,1+\epsilon_1)\cap X \subseteq U$ and $V = (1-\epsilon_1,1]$ is connected.
Now consider the quotient map $q\colon [0,1]\to S^1$ given by identifying $0$ and $1$. It restricts to a quotient map from $X$ to $Y =q(X)$, and because $X$ is compact, the quotient map $q_{|X}$ is even closed. However if we set $e=q(0)=q(1)$, then $Y$ is not locally connected at $e$, despite the fact that $X$ is locally connected at $1$ and $e=q(1)$. Indeed there is no neighbourhood of $e$ in $Y$ which is connected: the reason is just that the same is true of $X$ at $0$ -- any neighbourhood of $0$ contains infinitely many connected components of $X$, and any neighbourhood $V$ of $e$ yields a neighbourhood of both points in $q^{-1}(\{e\})$, and so in particular must be a neighbourhood of $0$.