Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φ\colon X \to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?
This is related to my previous question.
Let $X$ and $Y$ be projective varieties and $φ\colon X \to Y$ a regular birational map. If $U⊆X$ is an affine subset of $X$, is $φ(U)$ affine?
This is related to my previous question.
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No.
The simplest example is where $\varphi: X \rightarrow Y$ is the blowup of a point in $\mathbf P^2$. Then $X$ contains an affine open subset $U \cong \mathbf A^2$ and $Y$ contains an affine open subset $V \cong \mathbf A^2$ such that the map $\varphi: U \rightarrow V $ is given by the formula $(x,y) \mapsto (x,xy)$. So $\varphi(U) \subset V \cong \mathbf A^2$ is the union of the open set $\{x \neq 0\}$ and the point $(0,0)$. This is not affine.