Is "surjective" missing in this exercise's wording?

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In an exercise I am asked to prove the following:

Prove that a continuous image of a path-connected space is path-connected.

So the first thing that came to mind was:

Let $f:(X,\tau) \to (Y,\tau_1)$ be continuous, and $(X,\tau)$ path connected. Then let $a,b \in Y$ such that $a \neq b$. Then let $a'\in f^{-1}(\{a\})$ and $b' \in f^{-1}(\{b\})$ such that $a' \neq b'.$ Because $(X,\tau)$ is path-connected there exists a path from $a'$ to $b'$ and then what I thought is based on that prove that there exists a path from $a$ to $b$. ´

But my question is: How do I know that $\exists a' \in X: f(a')= 0$, because we don't know if our function is surjective or not. Previously the book stated the following propertie:

Let $(X,\tau)$ and $(Y,\tau_1)$ be topological spaces and $f(X,\tau) \to(Y,\tau_1)$ surjective and continuous. If $(X,\tau)$ is connected then $(Y,\tau_1)$ is also connected.

Is the exercise that I'm trying to solve badly formulated or is indeed correct and the function does not need to be surjective?

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The goal is not to prove that $Y$ is path-connected. Rather, it is to prove that $f(X)$ is path-connected. And then your approach works. That is, if $a,b\in f(X)$, there are $a',b'\in X$ such that $f(a')=a$ and thet $f(b')=b$. If $\gamma$ is a path in $X$ that goes from $a'$ to $b'$, then $f\circ\gamma$ is a path in $f(X)$ that goes from $a$ to $b$.